Butterfangers wrote:You require an assumption that Eichmann is telling the truth, whereas every courtroom on the planet takes seriously the fact that people often lie, for various reasons. You assume this, despite no doubt insisting that Eichmann lied profusely in court just a couple years later.
...what does memory recall have to do with anything here?
For example, some of your evidence that he's lying is he said he saw gassings at Majdanek (15+ years later he could have gotten the name of the camp wrong, it's a relatively minor detail)
Based on the testimony alone, I think there is a high likelihood he is telling the truth, because in my mind only an insane person would for weeks on end and in great detail affirm a mass killing program they knew didn't exist (and Eichmann as one of the highest ranking members of the SS, literally in charge of department for "Jewish affairs and evacuation" would have known whether or not it did. I haven't found your reasoning compelling and general to a fault. Honestly what you provided here viewtopic.php?f=2&t=14859&start=195#p109212 sound like the kind of answers ChatGPT would give
I ran a test here and it spit out these reasons, some similar to the ones you gave
It is possible that Eichmann could have lied to Sassen about the existence of a genocidal program for a variety of reasons. Here are a few possibilities:
To impress Sassen: Eichmann may have felt the need to exaggerate or fabricate details about his involvement in the Holocaust in order to impress Sassen and present himself as a more important figure in Nazi history than he actually was.
To save face: Even if Eichmann was involved in the persecution and deportation of Jews, he may have wanted to downplay his role or portray himself as having acted under duress or on orders from higher authorities in order to avoid being held fully responsible for his actions.
To spread propaganda: Eichmann may have deliberately spread false information about a genocidal program in order to sow fear and confusion among potential enemies of the Nazi regime or to bolster support for the Nazi cause among sympathizers.
You're going to go to the text (800 pages or so have been uploaded) and support your statements, they're too general to even respond to and I guess I'm content to leave the matter at that. I also am unfamiliar with the text (since I don't speak German) and rely on Stangneth's commentary and selected quotes, which obviously you would have some objections with. It does seem from the quotes she provides that Sassen and the entire circle were disturbed by Eichmann's statements about the existence of the mass killing program and it led to their relationship becoming quite strained towards the end (you can kind of see this in the long quote provided here viewtopic.php?f=2&t=14609#p105344).
Butterfangers wrote:Nothing was "automatically assumed". My reasons are clearly outlined, above. If Eichmann had said "Jews were resettled", you'd have a valid claim to suggest, "he's just motivated to avoid trial or conviction"! That's the nature of testimony. We don't know the motives and we don't know if it's true.
This "testimony" is Eichmann sitting in a chair and telling a combination of truth and lies (we don't know the true proportions of either since we only have transcripts from a "Nazi journalist" who sold them for profit). The original tapes are either vanished or deliberately kept away from "deniers". Christopher Browning acknowledges that Eichmann lies in his precapture testimony. Others insist he lies in his postcapture testimony (in Israeli court).
Where does Browning say Eichmann lied (knowingly uttering an untruth)?
If Eichmann in that context had spoken of resettlement very briefly it would be evidence of that, though pretty weak. If he had spoken of it in detail, talking about where the Jews had been sent, what had happened to them during the retreat, etc, then I would consider to have much stronger evidentiary value. If corroborated by other sources, even higher evidentiary value.
The real problem, bombsaway, is that you don't feel a need for there to be bodies in a murder investigation. If there is one murder, a body is almost always needed for a conviction. But you're content with millions of alleged murders and near-zero bodies.
Assuming the bodies were destroyed, with cremains dumped in rivers, scattered in fields, or mixed with sand and buried (so they say at Sobibor, Belzec, Chelmno), what do you do then? I asked this question earlier and no one gave me an answer.
fireofice wrote:Circular reasoning. You assume liquidation always means killing when applied to humans, and then you use that as "proof" that it is never used for killing when applied to humans.
No I would say it very likely does because that's how the word was always or almost always used. Your only example from the Times isn't quoted in full, and could have been imprecise language from the writer, but assuming that meaning was clear it wouldn't change my position much because Germans used liquidation to mean killing far more frequently from what I've seen. Really I haven't seen a single example, where any other meaning is clear when referring to people.
From a document on July 24:After the end of the war, he [Hitler] will take the rigorous stand of squeezing one city after another until the Jews came out, ready to emigrate to Madagascar or to some other Jewish national state.
The "Extermination Camps" of "Aktion Reinhardt" page 365
Clearly there was no official abandonment of the plan and Goebbels was not "out of the loop" which would be very unlikely. This also shows that there was no extermination plan even by July 24. So clearly Goebbels was not talking about killing with his "liquidation" passage on March 27.
This is from Hitler's "Table Talks" a book some posters here have questioned, which were basically dinner conversations with assorted guests whose wives were often present. Personally I don't believe it has high evidentiary value, but this is something we could talk about
viewtopic.php?f=2&t=13990&start=15
Anyway, we discussed this document earlier in this thread (from Feb 1942), so I would defer to that on this topic (sent to head of the Colonial. Department of the Foreign Office, Bielfeld)
On 10 February 1942, Franz Rademacher sent to another Third Reich official a memo, stating:
"The war against the Soviet Union has in the meantime created the opportunity to use other territories for the Final Solution. Accordingly, the Führer has decided that the Jews will not be shoved to Madagascar but rather to the east. Madagascar no longer needs to be earmarked for the Final Solution."



