In 1938 Hitler said "I have no more territorial demands in Europe.."
In 1939 he gave an ultimatum to Lithuania for Memel
Now, I understand the situation with making the Rump Czech state a protectorate, and the Polish Corridor having been an issue before 1938, and the fact that Memel was populated by mostly Germans, but why did he make the demand? Would this have not made Hitler untrustworthy?
Memel Ultimatum
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- steeltoe14
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Memel Ultimatum
I <3 Holocaust Denial
Re: Memel Ultimatum
Hello steeltoe14:
First, Memel was seized / stolen from Germany after WWI, it was part of Germany.
There is absolutely no proof of an "ultimatum"; but certainly the German government made it known that they wanted it back, and rightly so.
Will of the people, right?
The facts are that the people of Memel were very pleased to be part of Germany again.
Prost!
- Hannover
First, Memel was seized / stolen from Germany after WWI, it was part of Germany.
There is absolutely no proof of an "ultimatum"; but certainly the German government made it known that they wanted it back, and rightly so.
Will of the people, right?
The facts are that the people of Memel were very pleased to be part of Germany again.
Prost!
- Hannover
If it can't happen as alleged, then it didn't.
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- Member
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Re: Memel Ultimatum
What is fascinating that he wanted Memmel back, but did not make any demands for the Sued Tirol.
- Kingfisher
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Re: Memel Ultimatum
blacksmith wrote:What is fascinating that he wanted Memmel back, but did not make any demands for the Sued Tirol.
That was Mussolini's quid pro quo for not opposing the Anschluss, and his support in general.
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Re: Memel Ultimatum
Thank you Kingfisher. That slipped my mind.
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