Were German Documents Destroyed?
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Re: Were German Documents Destroyed?
I am also new here. Don't have knowledge about details like these guys have but I got general idea about both positions. I do not believe in mass murder theory.
Now, I was reading this discussion and it got complicated so I would like to simplify it.
Hilberg comes off like a guy that loves drama. You can see it in videos where he speaks. It is almost like he makes every word sound important when it isn't. That is my impression. Now that you quoted him it looks the same in text. I can imagine him speak and wave his hand.
I think these guys are trying to tell you that Hilberg presumed this happened without actually proving it with material evidence. Material evidence would be something like excavation of 900.000 bodies from Treblinka. Now that you have evidence that it did happen then you have to make this theory on how it happened.
For the sake of argument try to imagine that it didn't happen even if you believe it did. Then, what would Hilberg words mean? They would mean nothing. It would be made up theory of how it could happen in his imagination. I think that is not a way to go.
First material evidence, then you back it up with documents that you can find, and then you take into account testimonies when everything else works in this story. He goes the opposite.
This is my understanding. I also could not figure what he was saying because there was not clear and simple explanation. I have language barrier so I could be wrong. Maybe Hilberg makes sense but I just can't see it because words are too complicated.
Now, I was reading this discussion and it got complicated so I would like to simplify it.
Hilberg comes off like a guy that loves drama. You can see it in videos where he speaks. It is almost like he makes every word sound important when it isn't. That is my impression. Now that you quoted him it looks the same in text. I can imagine him speak and wave his hand.
I think these guys are trying to tell you that Hilberg presumed this happened without actually proving it with material evidence. Material evidence would be something like excavation of 900.000 bodies from Treblinka. Now that you have evidence that it did happen then you have to make this theory on how it happened.
For the sake of argument try to imagine that it didn't happen even if you believe it did. Then, what would Hilberg words mean? They would mean nothing. It would be made up theory of how it could happen in his imagination. I think that is not a way to go.
First material evidence, then you back it up with documents that you can find, and then you take into account testimonies when everything else works in this story. He goes the opposite.
This is my understanding. I also could not figure what he was saying because there was not clear and simple explanation. I have language barrier so I could be wrong. Maybe Hilberg makes sense but I just can't see it because words are too complicated.
Re: Were German Documents Destroyed?
Hilberg states that the cooperation of different parts of "the engine of destruction" was very complete and efficient. But this doesn't appear to be the case at all. The policies against the Jews, once the war was really underway, were very disorganized perhaps with the exception of the prisoners utilized for labor. The Germans really did not care to expend much effort worrying about other Jews once they were accounted for; the war took precedent. If they were not fit for labor they were not going to be much of a threat anyway.
Consider the example of Auschwitz's supposedly deadliest alleged homicidal gas chamber. In the building, Krema II, the supposed gassing room was connected to the crematoria by way of a 4x9 foot manually operated elevator. This elevator broke down multiple times and there was an extensive back/forth between the Auschwitz Construction Office and Topf + the Berlin authorities, demanding a new elevator be installed. Over a year of letters being sent demanding the manufacturing permit, but ultimately the makeshift elevator was never replaced. viewtopic.php?t=12891
At Majdanek, the death toll was particularly high compared to other camps because of the abismal sanitary conditions. The camp command was unable to get the camp connected to the municipal water supply at Lublin, resulting in a widespread outbreak of disease. Disease outbreaks (even for people you don't care about or ultimately want to kill) is always undesirable because disease can easily spread to civilians or guards. And once they finally obtained approval to connect the water supply, it was done very slowly. viewtopic.php?p=95389#p95389
This is also true when it comes to the ghettos. Longerich himself stated that the "establishment of ghettos was carried out so haphazardly and slowly" that it couldn't be seen as some policy aimed to physically exterminate the Jews. viewtopic.php?t=12609
And then we have the whole story of Aktion 1005 where the Germans supposedly decided to dig up hundreds of thousands of rotting corpses and incinerate them in giant outdoor pyres to "hide the evidence" - including at the AR camps, where it was written in various documents that these were for "resettlement" but for some reason forgot to type up fake outbound records. Even the English-language press called "resettlement" a code word.
For example, a 26 Nov 1942 article "Nazis Plot Jews' extinction" [The Hebrew Standard of Australasia, Sydney, NSW, p. 8] stated that by Sept 1942, 250 thousand Jews, according to the Polish government, were killed under the guise of "resettlement in the East."
So the allegation is that 'resettlement to the east' was a 'code word' that meant extermination. Digging up and burning the bodies to 'hide the evidence' would have made some sense (although dumping millions of pounds of burnt remains back into the pits is not really hiding the evidence) but it is not complete. Typing up these fake outbound records would have been the most obvious course of action if we are to believe the storyline. It was far simpler, they had plenty of time to plan and do it, they allegedly had no qualms about writing up fake/deceptive documents, and it would have provided documentary evidence for their claims.
Consider the example of Auschwitz's supposedly deadliest alleged homicidal gas chamber. In the building, Krema II, the supposed gassing room was connected to the crematoria by way of a 4x9 foot manually operated elevator. This elevator broke down multiple times and there was an extensive back/forth between the Auschwitz Construction Office and Topf + the Berlin authorities, demanding a new elevator be installed. Over a year of letters being sent demanding the manufacturing permit, but ultimately the makeshift elevator was never replaced. viewtopic.php?t=12891
At Majdanek, the death toll was particularly high compared to other camps because of the abismal sanitary conditions. The camp command was unable to get the camp connected to the municipal water supply at Lublin, resulting in a widespread outbreak of disease. Disease outbreaks (even for people you don't care about or ultimately want to kill) is always undesirable because disease can easily spread to civilians or guards. And once they finally obtained approval to connect the water supply, it was done very slowly. viewtopic.php?p=95389#p95389
This is also true when it comes to the ghettos. Longerich himself stated that the "establishment of ghettos was carried out so haphazardly and slowly" that it couldn't be seen as some policy aimed to physically exterminate the Jews. viewtopic.php?t=12609
And then we have the whole story of Aktion 1005 where the Germans supposedly decided to dig up hundreds of thousands of rotting corpses and incinerate them in giant outdoor pyres to "hide the evidence" - including at the AR camps, where it was written in various documents that these were for "resettlement" but for some reason forgot to type up fake outbound records. Even the English-language press called "resettlement" a code word.
For example, a 26 Nov 1942 article "Nazis Plot Jews' extinction" [The Hebrew Standard of Australasia, Sydney, NSW, p. 8] stated that by Sept 1942, 250 thousand Jews, according to the Polish government, were killed under the guise of "resettlement in the East."
So the allegation is that 'resettlement to the east' was a 'code word' that meant extermination. Digging up and burning the bodies to 'hide the evidence' would have made some sense (although dumping millions of pounds of burnt remains back into the pits is not really hiding the evidence) but it is not complete. Typing up these fake outbound records would have been the most obvious course of action if we are to believe the storyline. It was far simpler, they had plenty of time to plan and do it, they allegedly had no qualms about writing up fake/deceptive documents, and it would have provided documentary evidence for their claims.
"There is a principle which is a bar against all information, which is proof against all arguments, and which cannot fail to keep a man in everlasting ignorance -- that principle is contempt prior to investigation."
NOTE: I am taking a leave of absence from revisionism to focus on other things. At this point, the ball is in their court to show the alleged massive pits full of human remains at the so-called "extermination camps." After 8 decades they still refuse to do this. I wonder why...
— Herbert Spencer
NOTE: I am taking a leave of absence from revisionism to focus on other things. At this point, the ball is in their court to show the alleged massive pits full of human remains at the so-called "extermination camps." After 8 decades they still refuse to do this. I wonder why...
Re: Were German Documents Destroyed?
Lamprecht wrote:And then we have the whole story of Aktion 1005 where the Germans supposedly decided to dig up hundreds of thousands of rotting corpses and incinerate them in giant outdoor pyres to "hide the evidence" -
You really have to wonder why when there was no systematic plan to exterminate the Jews and even when it was 'decided', that it was carried out in such an unsystematic, disorganised, and ridiculous way despite apparently being the aim of 'the Nazis'. But somehow 'Aktion 1005' was carried out with superhuman, literally impossible efficiency. We're being told to believe that the 'Nazis' put more time, planning, and systemised effort into disposing of the remains of Jews they'd killed, but not the same about of time, planning and systemised effort into actually killing them. . . Like, by replacing the elevator, getting better doors built, or building a more efficient gas chamber, or making sure they could heat up the gypsum pellets and secrete the gas from them using hot air like they did in the disinfestation gas chambers. They did none of this to make the process easier for themselves, yet went to such ridiculous efforts to destroy the evidence.
David Cesarani, and other historians like Hans Mommsen, Martin Broszat etc. wrote that the 'extermination' of the Jews only ever became a viable possibility that was haphazardly implemented due to wartime conditions . Otherwise, it can safely be concluded, that had there been no war, or had the Allies decided to be responsible and make peace when Hitler offered it to them multiple times in 1939-1940 the Jews would've remained persecuted, but not physically harmed to any appreciable degree, and they eventually would've been deported.
Or another possibility, had Roosevelt not conspired to get the USA into the war, and had be obeyed the laws of neutrality, the Soviet Union wouldn't have received the lend-lease and thus the German army would've crushed the Soviet Union and deported the Jews outside the newly established Greater German Reich further to the east, perhaps 'beyond the Urals'.
Re: Were German Documents Destroyed?
HMSendeavour wrote:You really have to wonder why when there was no systematic plan to exterminate the Jews and even when it was 'decided', that it was carried out in such an unsystematic, disorganised, and ridiculous way despite apparently being the aim of 'the Nazis'. But somehow 'Aktion 1005' was carried out with superhuman, literally impossible efficiency.
To me, that is the most suspicious part of Treblinka story. Knowing they had crematoriums of capacity claimed at Auschwitz they would simply burn bodies from the start.
Imagine keeping pits open while you throw bodies in them for days because you could not kill all those people in just one day and cover it with soil.
I think dealing with bodies would be the same in all camps.
I know it would take aditional cabbage plantations but Germans were capable and I am sure it would be no problem.
Re: Were German Documents Destroyed?
On the subject of destroying evidence, these two threads are relevant:
Kommandobefehl, Kommissarbefehl, and Sühnebefehl / "Nazis destroyed all incriminating documents" or not?
viewtopic.php?t=12626
Germans destroyed the crematoria, but left "Gas Chambers" intact
viewtopic.php?t=12617
Kommandobefehl, Kommissarbefehl, and Sühnebefehl / "Nazis destroyed all incriminating documents" or not?
viewtopic.php?t=12626
Germans destroyed the crematoria, but left "Gas Chambers" intact
viewtopic.php?t=12617
"There is a principle which is a bar against all information, which is proof against all arguments, and which cannot fail to keep a man in everlasting ignorance -- that principle is contempt prior to investigation."
NOTE: I am taking a leave of absence from revisionism to focus on other things. At this point, the ball is in their court to show the alleged massive pits full of human remains at the so-called "extermination camps." After 8 decades they still refuse to do this. I wonder why...
— Herbert Spencer
NOTE: I am taking a leave of absence from revisionism to focus on other things. At this point, the ball is in their court to show the alleged massive pits full of human remains at the so-called "extermination camps." After 8 decades they still refuse to do this. I wonder why...
Re: Were German Documents Destroyed?
Re: Hilberg, I think his view might have changed somewhat over time. I know in the original 1961 version of his book, he claimed there were Hitler orders.
"How was the killing phase brought about? Basically, we are dealing with two of Hitler's decisions. One order was given in the spring of 1941..." (pg 177)
He was challenged on this point by Ernst Zundel's lawyer Doug Christie in 1985 and he unable to give a adequate response. After much back-and-forth, we get this exchange.
http://ihr.org/books/kulaszka/09hilberg.html
Laughable. My understanding is Hilberg removed this claim from his second edition which was released shortly after this.
The mind-reading quote is from sometime later. (I want to say 1982). It was a comment he made at some event. Hilberg confirmed the quote under oath.
I think Hilberg's views might have become more functionalist over time. I don't think the mind-reading quote is out of context at all and I think it represents the functionalist position all too accurately. The problem is that it sounds ridiculous. When you are arguing something ridiculous, it's better to obfuscate somewhat and present the position very cleverly so that it sounds plausible.
"How was the killing phase brought about? Basically, we are dealing with two of Hitler's decisions. One order was given in the spring of 1941..." (pg 177)
He was challenged on this point by Ernst Zundel's lawyer Doug Christie in 1985 and he unable to give a adequate response. After much back-and-forth, we get this exchange.
http://ihr.org/books/kulaszka/09hilberg.html
So, said Christie, really we don't have an order in existence in any written form. We have from you an interpretation of what Mr. Jodl is supposed to have said Adolf Hitler is supposed to have said, which you say was in the archives in West Germany, and which you say has a dash between Jewish and Bolshevik. (4-835)
"That is my best recollection," said Hilberg.
So it wasn't just Jewish-Bolshevik commissars that had to be killed. It was Jewish people, was it?, asked Christie.
"Well, this particular problem is the one that caused a lot of discussion," said Hilberg. "There is no precise, clear answer as to what the exact wording was. We could only deduce from subsequent explanations by lower ranking individuals who passed on this particular command, particularly to the Einsatzgruppen, what it was that was being ordered."
This was the commissars order to the Einsatzgruppen, was it?, asked Christie.
"Ultimately it was the order not only to the Einsatzgruppen, it was to the armed forces as well."
I want to understand clearly, said Christie. This order says, 'Annihilate Jewish Bolshevik commissars', right?
"Mm-hmmm," said Hilberg. (4-836)
And you interpret that to mean 'Annihilate Jewish people and Bolshevik commissars', right?
"Correct."
Laughable. My understanding is Hilberg removed this claim from his second edition which was released shortly after this.
The mind-reading quote is from sometime later. (I want to say 1982). It was a comment he made at some event. Hilberg confirmed the quote under oath.
Christie produced an article entitled "The Holocaust in Perspective" by George DeWan; beneath a photograph of Hilberg, the caption read: "Panelist Raul Hilberg, a Vermont University political science professor, ponders a question on the Holocaust."
Hilberg said, "It is a question asked by the audience. I was listening."
Christie read out a portion of the article in which it quoted Hilberg:
"If one looks at origins, one may go back through the centuries into antiquity to discover the building blocks of the destruction of the European Jews," Hilberg said. "But what began in 1941 was a process of destruction not planned in advance, not organized centrally by any agency. There was no blueprint and there was no budget for destructive measures. They were taken step by step, one step at a time. Thus came about not so much a plan being carried out, but an incredible meeting of minds, a consensus - mind reading by a far-flung bureaucracy."
"I said that," admitted Hilberg. "I said nothing about any order not existing."
No, said Christie, nothing there about any order. Right.
"Well, you had previously said that I had, at that meeting, in conjunction with these other phrases, also indicated that there was no order, and I said I recall no such word and, indeed, what you showed me does not indicate that I said anything about an order."
I agree you didn't say anything about an order, said Christie. In fact, you said it was an incredible meeting of minds.
"Yes."
Does that imply the existence of an order?, asked Christie.
"It does not exclude the existence of an order," said Hilberg. "... If an order is given orally and passed on, and especially if wording is couched in such a way that the order giver relies on the understanding of the subordinate, then it does become important for those subordinates to understand, indeed, and to have the same understanding of what was expected. And this is what I said."
Was there an order or wasn't there?, asked Christie.
"I believe that there was a Hitler order," said Hilberg. "... Professor Krausnick believes this. Others believe that there was not." (4-846 to 849)
So it's an article of faith based upon your opinion?, asked Christie.
"No, it is not an article of faith at all. It is a conclusion. One can come down one way on it or the other."
Because there is no evidence to prove one side or the other, right?, asked Christie.
"There may be evidence, but there is a question in this case of what is sufficient evidence," said Hilberg.
One order was given in the spring of 1941 is what you said in your book, said Christie.
"That is one man's opinion -- mine."
It doesn't say it is an opinion, said Christie. It states it as a fact, sir, I suggest.
"Look," said Hilberg, "how often must I reiterate that wording? It is in the beginning of a chapter. It is in the nature of saying, here is what I am laying out. Now, keep reading. You don't have to agree with what I say after you have seen the footnotes, after you have seen the evidence."
I think Hilberg's views might have become more functionalist over time. I don't think the mind-reading quote is out of context at all and I think it represents the functionalist position all too accurately. The problem is that it sounds ridiculous. When you are arguing something ridiculous, it's better to obfuscate somewhat and present the position very cleverly so that it sounds plausible.
Re: Were German Documents Destroyed?
Archie wrote:Re: Hilberg, I think his view might have changed somewhat over time. I know in the original 1961 version of his book, he claimed there were Hitler orders. [...] The mind-reading quote is from sometime later. (I want to say 1982). It was a comment he made at some event. Hilberg confirmed the quote under oath.
His views certainly became more elaborate, but from what you quoted he still believes in a Hitler order, without any evidence, even though he was forced to revise his book and pad it out with claims of winks and nods. I think it's safe to assume that he believed in a Hitler order because he wanted to believe in it, it was totally irrational on his part. It seems like something rather emotional for him.
He made the mind reading statement on February 22nd 1983. I quoted from 'Dissecting the Holocaust' earlier in this thread with the brief overview.
So it wasn't just Jewish-Bolshevik commissars that had to be killed. It was Jewish people, was it?, asked Christie.
"Well, this particular problem is the one that caused a lot of discussion," said Hilberg. "There is no precise, clear answer as to what the exact wording was. We could only deduce from subsequent explanations by lower ranking individuals who passed on this particular command, particularly to the Einsatzgruppen, what it was that was being ordered."
This was the commissars order to the Einsatzgruppen, was it?, asked Christie.
"Ultimately it was the order not only to the Einsatzgruppen, it was to the armed forces as well."
I want to understand clearly, said Christie. This order says, 'Annihilate Jewish Bolshevik commissars', right?
"Mm-hmmm," said Hilberg. (4-836)
And you interpret that to mean 'Annihilate Jewish people and Bolshevik commissars', right?
"Correct."
Germar Rudolf ed., The First Zündel Trial (Castle Hill Publishers, February 2020), Pp. 147-148.
This is the kind of interpretive nonsense we see time and time again from these exterminationists, Richard Evans did the same thing with the Schlegelberger document. It honestly blows my mind that they can be this deluded. But it's perhaps not wholly surprising seeing as they're actively looking to find anything they can use to substantiate a conclusion they've already decided upon. It's confirmation bias at its worst. But this, this is just insane, you'd have to pretend that the National Socialists didn't refer to Bolshevism as 'Judeo-Bolshevism' as a single entity, because Bolshevism is Jewish. If the Commissars were already thought to be Jewish, then it would be ridiculous to issue an order to kill the Jews and the Commissars. Just order the annihilation of the Jews and be done with it.
That this is what's put forward as the 'evidence' the 'experts' have for their beloved Holocaust - a blatantly intellectually disingenuous 'interpretation' - should make anyone think twice about appealing to their credentials and positions of authority.
It should be noted that Hilberg continuously avoided answering very simple questions, even though he was capable in his book of making very simple definitive statements. Suddenly this wasn't the case, and he had to try and find a logical way to interpret what simply didn't exist.
Hilberg kept side stepping the question Doug Christie put to him about whether the Einsatzgruppen were ordered to kill all Jews 'on the spot' as part of the Commissar Order. He wouldn't give an answer, despite the fact that he claimed they were ordered to do so in his book. Even when questioned by Mr. Christie, Hilberg claimed that when the Einsatsgruppen commanders were in Nuremberg they 'made statements about what it is they were told to do' (implying they were to kill Jews), but when asked whether 'what it is is they were told to do' was kill all Jews 'on the spot', Hilberg diverted from the question and started making baseless assertions that because the four Einsatzgruppen units had 3,000 men per unit, it's therefore unlikely they were just ordered to kill Commissars, and that's how he concludes the order was really about 'the Jews' generally; despite the fact he offered no evidence and he simply could've answered 'yes' to Doug Christie if the Einsatagruppen commanders in Nuremberg really did explicitly state they were ordered to kill Jews. Evidently they did not, because Hilberg just ignores it.
Q. But there is a hyphen in there that you think exists. Right?
A. Yes.
Q. But it doesn’t say Jewish people and Bolshevik Commissars.
A. No, it does not. And obviously, one would not call a conference and one would not discuss in great detail, and one would not have extensive articles if the matter were clear-cut. There is such a thing as a gap in knowledge of history, and we are dealing here with one of the more complex problems of what the Germans called decision-making in this case.
Q. Right. It doesn’t appear, from your very brief and unfootnoted statement at the very bottom of page 177, that this is a very complex subject, that the order, as such, does not exist but we have an account of it from somebody else. None of that seems indicated in the very simple words: “Basically, we are dealing with two of Hitler’s decisions. One order was given in the spring of 1941, during {837|838} the planning of the invasion of the USSR; it provided that small units of the SS and Police be dispatched to Soviet territory, where they were to move from town to town to kill all Jewish inhabitants on the spot.” Right?
A. Yes, these are introductory words to a chapter.
Q. Yes.
A. And in the subsequent pages you will find in the footnotes that you are looking for reference to particular sources, including the directive that I mentioned by General Warlimont and other commanders, including above all the commanders of Einsatzgruppen who, to the extent that they were around in Nuremberg, made statements about what it is they were told to do.
Q. Yes, what it is they were told to you, even according to you now, is not to kill all Jewish inhabitants on the spot, but it was to kill Jewish-Bolshevik Commissars. Correct?
A. What I am saying is that the original wording justifying the establishment of special units called {838|839} organs in this particular language of the S.S. and Police was the killing of Jewish-Bolshevik Commissars. This was the justification. The units to be established for this purpose belonged to the S.S. and Police, which was deemed to be the type of organization to carry out such a political task, rather than the armed forces. This, of course, does not exhaust the problem. One would not set up four units aggregating three thousand men to kill a small handful of people, Bolshevik Commissars, who were extremely few, and who were not often captured since they tried to avoid capture, naturally, and there would be little point in establishing, with high ranking personnel, three thousand men, such, you know, for such a single small purpose, relatively small purpose.
Germar Rudolf ed., The First Zündel Trial (Castle Hill Publishers, February 2020), Pp. 148.
Re: Were German Documents Destroyed?
Thanks to another user on this forum, I did come across this document on destruction of documents:
http://www.deathcamps.org/reinhard/arloot.htm
Seems like they did want to cover up some criminal activity that was happening at these camps, most likely dealing with the confiscation of Jewish property, not genocide.
There is one additional factor to be added to the total accounting of "Reinhardt" which is that the vouchers dealing with it must be destroyed as soon as possible after the data have already been destroyed by all other works concerned in this matter.
http://www.deathcamps.org/reinhard/arloot.htm
Seems like they did want to cover up some criminal activity that was happening at these camps, most likely dealing with the confiscation of Jewish property, not genocide.
Re: Were German Documents Destroyed?
The destruction protocol mentioned above is addressed in The Extermination Camps of Aktion Reinhardt book starting on page 844. Basically, it refers to these points directly above what it's saying:
This is just about destroying the camps, including the economic records so it doesn't fall into enemy hands. Nothing to do with exterminations or even deportations. So this can't be used as evidence of "destroying evidence of extermination".
1. The economic part of the Aktion Reinhardt with the subdivisions
a. Accounting and delivery of the assets seized and
b. Accounting of the assets attained by the work.
2. The Settlers’ Economic Association, the conduct of whose economy also rested on my work, and which is now being transferred to civilian hands.
This is just about destroying the camps, including the economic records so it doesn't fall into enemy hands. Nothing to do with exterminations or even deportations. So this can't be used as evidence of "destroying evidence of extermination".
Re: Were German Documents Destroyed?
Lamprecht wrote:On the subject of destroying evidence, these two threads are relevant:
Kommandobefehl, Kommissarbefehl, and Sühnebefehl / "Nazis destroyed all incriminating documents" or not?
viewtopic.php?t=12626
Germans destroyed the crematoria, but left "Gas Chambers" intact
viewtopic.php?t=12617
I'm pretty certain documents were destroyed. How many I don't know. Question would be who destroyed them. Only those that got hold of them could. Who had documents in their hands?
1. The Germans... Meaning the administrative organizations that held documents.
2. The Allies
3. People that kept documents privately.
There is also the possibility that documents got lost, were bombed out. Were stolen, were found, etc.
And whoever controls documents now can also withhold documents, if he wants too. There is also the issue of forged, documents of course. I do however think they are more rare. Too much effort to manufacture them. Those would of course be documents useful to the forgers or a party they were serving.
Arolsen claims to have Millions of (German) records relating to the era.
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