Hitler's Reichstag Speech - Troubling Translation

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Hitler's Reichstag Speech - Troubling Translation

Postby TruthSeeker7 » 2 years 7 months ago (Mon Oct 26, 2020 4:06 pm)

Hello, I am back again asking some more questions that deeply trouble my understanding. I came across this video recording and subtitle which I fact checked multiple times with translation AI and some native German speakers and I'm afraid it might be genuine.

Here is the part of the speech. https://www.bitchute.com/video/zEO2DDDZtvH0/

I have also heard it translated to "Jewry" which I hoped was correct but unfortunately that's not what it really translates to.

The following is exactly what is quoted in the description of the video. THIS IS NOT MY OPINION


"Ich will heute wieder ein Prophet sein: Wenn es dem internationalen Finanzjudentum in und außerhalb Europas gelingen sollte, die Völker noch einmal in einen Weltkrieg zu stürzen, dann wird das Ergebnis nicht die Bolschewisierung der Erde und damit der Sieg des Judentums sein, sondern die Vernichtung der jüdischen Rasse in Europa!"

translation:

"Today I want to be a prophet again. If international finance Jewry within Europe and abroad should succeed once more in plunging the peoples into a world war, then the consequence will be not the Bolshevization of the earth and therewith a victory of Jewry, but on the contrary, the destruction of the Jewish race in Europe!"

A man who threatens on film that war brought upon Europe will result in the destruction (Vernichtung) of the Jewish race. Note the specific wording he uses: Jüdische Rasse, aka Jewish People/Race, not "Judentum" as in religion, or as in political, or economic player, or even "jüdische Macht" (power) or "jüdischer Einfluss" (influence) but RASSE in Europe, is about as clear as can be that he means the mass killing of Jews and nothing else, no figure of speech or any bullshit like that holocaust deniers would like to believe. He doesn't talk about evacuation, about "durchschleusen", or "evakuierung", or "auswanderung" or "deportation", he doesn't mention Sonderbehandlung, or even "Ausrottung" (which some particularly obstinate deniers interpret as "to root out"), or even "das Ende der jüdischen Rasse in Europa", which, again, deniers could interpret as the end of the jewish race in europe via mass deportation, no, Hitler says VERNICHTUNG (destruction, annihilation) of the RASSE very clearly.

Before you accuse me of only showing you a snippet, Hitler then goes on to say:

"Die Völker wollen nicht mehr auf den Schlachtfeldern sterben, damit diese wurzellose internationale Rasse an den Geschäften des Krieges verdient und ihre alttestamentarische Rachsucht befriedigt. Über der jüdischen Parole: Proletarier aller Länder vereinigt euch wird eine höhere Erkenntnis siegen, nämlich: Schaffende Angehörige aller Nationen erkennt euren gemeinsamen Feind."

translated to:

"The peoples no longer want to die on the battlefields, so that this rootless international race can profit from the affairs of the war and satisfy its old-testamentarian vengefulness. A higher realization will prevail over the Jewish slogan 'Proletarians of the world unite!': 'Productive members of all nations, recognize your common enemy!'"

Unless holocaust deniers can procure a 1940s dictionary that gives a different meaning to the German word "Vernichtung" when combined with the target "Rasse", I daresay at this point they only can resort to saying:

1) the recording is fake (easy way out, but this recording has been around for ages, before the development of any CGI)
or
2) Hitler was only a hothead making hollow and empty threats, or poetic ("we will not die, for it is they who will...")

both are very moronic attempts at this point to exculpate Hitler promising the holocaust.



What does everybody think about this?

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Re: Hitler's Reichstag Speech - Troubling Translation

Postby Moderator » 2 years 7 months ago (Mon Oct 26, 2020 4:53 pm)

FYI, previously covered at:

Hitler Quote ? - 30 January 1939 Reichstag speech
viewtopic.php?f=2&t=3850
and:
search.php?keywords=1939+reichstag+speech&fid%5B0%5D=2
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Re: Hitler's Reichstag Speech - Troubling Translation

Postby Lamprecht » 2 years 7 months ago (Mon Oct 26, 2020 5:19 pm)

Yes, this "Führer prophecy" speech has already been discussed in multiple threads, especially the one linked above by the moderator. The posts in that thread are worth reading.

It is a genuine speech, it was public. Nobody has ever claimed otherwise. But there is no reason to believe that he is calling for an extermination of Jews here. It is not even argued that he meant that except by very deceptive exterminationists who really just want you to believe their narrative no matter what. Go check the newspaper articles from this period (the speech was given on 30 January 1939, before the war broke out in Europe) and you will see that nobody interpreted his statements as a call for genocide. Even at the Irving trial the defense admitted that the language of this speech was not genocidal, I quoted this part of the verdict in the previous thread.

On 3 January 1943, Goebbels in his diary referred to:
"the Führer’s prophecy, when he explained at the beginning of the war that it would not end with the destruction (Vernichtung) of the Aryan race, but with the expulsion (Austreibung) of Jewry from Europe."

Squabbling about the meaning of "Vernichtung" here is not even worthwhile. It's nothing more than a prophecy, a prediction, a guess. Hektor points out:
Hektor wrote:Does that love quote mining from Hitler speeches to create a certain impression do however use that excerpt and leave other important parts of the speech out. E.g. the immediate part after that quote is quite explanatory to what he means. There is another important excerpt as well, shortly before yours:
Es kann sehr wohl möglich sein, daß über diesem Problem früher oder später eine Einigung in Europa selbst zwischen solchen Nationen stattfindet, die sonst nicht so leicht den Weg zueinander finden würden. Die Welt hat Siedlungsraum genügend, es muß aber endgültig mit der Meinung gebrochen werden, als sei das jüdische Volk vom lieben Gott eben dazu bestimmt, in einem gewissen Prozentsatz Nutznießer am Körper und an der produktiven Arbeit anderer Völker zu sein. Das Judentum wird sich genau so einer soliden aufbauenden Tätigkeit anpassen müssen, wie es andere Völker auch tun, oder es wird früher oder später einer Krise von unvorstellbarem Ausmaße erliegen.

translated as:
I believe the earlier this problem is resolved, the better. For Europe cannot find peace before it has dealt properly with the Jewish question.

It is possible that the necessity of resolving this problem sooner or later should bring about agreement in Europe, even between nations which otherwise might not have reconciled themselves as readily with one another. There is more than enough room for settlement on this earth. All we need to do is put an end to the prevailing assumption that the Dear Lord chose the Jewish people to be the beneficiaries of a certain percentage of the productive capacities of other peoples’ bodies and their labors. Either the Jews will have to adjust to constructive, respectable activities, such as other people are already engaged in, or, sooner or later, they will succumb to a crisis of yet inconceivable proportions.

Hence Hitler makes it clear that he wants to solve the Jewish question via resettlement.
Also recommended:

War-time German documents & writings mentioning the "Final Solution"
viewtopic.php?t=12296
"There is a principle which is a bar against all information, which is proof against all arguments, and which cannot fail to keep a man in everlasting ignorance -- that principle is contempt prior to investigation."
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NOTE: I am taking a leave of absence from revisionism to focus on other things. At this point, the ball is in their court to show the alleged massive pits full of human remains at the so-called "extermination camps." After 8 decades they still refuse to do this. I wonder why...

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Re: Hitler's Reichstag Speech - Troubling Translation

Postby Lamprecht » 2 years 7 months ago (Mon Oct 26, 2020 6:21 pm)

What a shame that I appear to be "Shadow banned" from commenting on the videos on that BitChute account. I can make a post and it shows up but once I refresh the page it disappears.
"There is a principle which is a bar against all information, which is proof against all arguments, and which cannot fail to keep a man in everlasting ignorance -- that principle is contempt prior to investigation."
— Herbert Spencer


NOTE: I am taking a leave of absence from revisionism to focus on other things. At this point, the ball is in their court to show the alleged massive pits full of human remains at the so-called "extermination camps." After 8 decades they still refuse to do this. I wonder why...

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Re: Hitler's Reichstag Speech - Troubling Translation

Postby Otium » 2 years 7 months ago (Tue Oct 27, 2020 12:01 am)

The January 30th 1939 Reichstag Speech is nothing special insofar as it pertains to evidence of the mythical Holocaust. As you will find out by reading through other posts on this matter, the speech was made years before the conventional narrative claims there was an extermination policy aimed at the Jews.

The importance of this speech isn't so much derived from its historical value, but from its ability to act as propaganda for the Holocaust Hucksters themselves to influence the public in movies, documentaries, and books. They might not cite it as evidence for anything, but they certainly use it to push the ignorant observer in the direction they want them to go. To evaluate all evidence from the pre-determined Holocaust perspective.

Ian Kershaw has a successful strategy for this that he's called "working towards the Führer". Because Hitler cannot be linked to anything regarding the Holocaust whatsoever, it is speeches like this that give Hitler's followers the idea that he wanted them to murder all the Jews because it was their interpretation of his will. Hence why you see highlighted in debate references to the Goebbels diary where Goebbels himself references Hitler's "prophecy".

To Kershaw, and now the wider academic establishment, Hitler's followers were supposed to perceive Hitler's wishes without any direct orders. The Holocaust establishment have thus invented a way to manufacture intent and then to weaponize it for their propaganda campaign against National Socialism:

In his speech to the Reichstag on 30 January 1939, the sixth anniversary of his takeover of power, Hitler revealed publicly his implicitly genocidal association of the destruction of the Jews with the advent of another war. The ‘hostage’ notion was probably built into his comments. And, as always, he obviously had an eye on the propaganda impact. But his words were more than propaganda.132 They gave an insight into the pathology of his mind, into the genocidal intent that was beginning to take hold. He had no idea how the war would bring about the destruction of the Jews. But, somehow, he was certain that this would indeed be the outcome of a new conflagration. ‘I have very often in my lifetime been a prophet,’ he declared, ‘and was mostly derided. In the time of my struggle for power it was in the first instance the Jewish people who received only with laughter my prophecies that I would some time take over the leadership of the state and of the entire people in Germany and then, among other things, also bring the Jewish problem to its solution. I believe that this once hollow laughter of Jewry in Germany has meanwhile already stuck in the throat. I want today to be a prophet again: if international finance Jewry inside and outside Europe should succeed in plunging the nations once more into a world war, the result will be not the bolshevization of the earth and thereby the victory of Jewry, but the annihilation (Vernichtung) of the Jewish race in Europe!’133 It was a ‘prophecy’ that Hitler would return to on numerous occasions on several occasions in the years 1941 and 1942, when the annihilation of the Jews was no longer terrible rhetoric, but terrible reality.

Ian Kershaw, Hitler 1936-1945 Nemesis (London: Allen Lane, 2000), pp. 152-153


Here Kershaw displays exactly what I'm talking about. He doesn't use the speech as evidence for anything, he just uses it to push for the pre-determined historical narrative he is planning to depict in his book. He uses these sly words to make it all stick, and at first glance is successful, but not to anyone that knows more details than he provides here. Saying "genocidal intent", "pathology of his mind" etc. Kershaw for a single moment allows himself to be taken in by Hitler as a prophet, and portray him as such. You will notice that he quite readily admits that "He had no idea how the war would bring about the destruction of the Jews.", thereby making sure the reader knows that at this time Hitler or anyone else, had no real plans to murder Jews, but makes sure that he can frame the wording of the speech to support the Holocaust narrative later on by saying "he was certain that this would indeed be the outcome of a new conflagration" and to support this assertion goes on to quote Hitler calling himself a prophet. Kershaw doesn't question this when he would otherwise chastise Hitler and those who followed him for even considering that such a "wicked" man could ever be a prophet, he would claim that Hitler had a "messianic complex". Only now, when it suits him, would Kershaw avoid such terminology in order to surreptitiously places Hitler at the helm of the Holocaust.

Because Kershaw knows full well that the Holocaust lie is pre-determined, when he uses the word Vernichtung it has the genocidal inflection Kershaw wanted it to have, because of his own manipulation of words, not Hitler's.

If Kershaw wasn't a hypocrite who allowed himself to convey to the reader that Hitler really was a prophet when it suits him, for events that he himself admitted Hitler had no idea about (this means Hitler was prophesising without a plan as a genuine prophet would). If Kershaw had not done this, Hitler would just be making a speech and using Vernichtung as an overly dramatic metaphor for the deportation of the Jews outside of Europe with no particular meaning one way or the other.

Remember, all books on Hitler start with the Holocaust. They never end with it, and it's never researched as if it were any other historical subject worthy of evaluation, let alone re-evaluation.

Many of these orthodox historians themselves actually explicitly deny that the speech indicated any plans for the Holocaust directly, because they know full well that it's untenable.

Here are some quotes from these Establishment Historians regarding the speech:

Nazi antisemitism certainly took a new turn in 1938, but it would be difficult to argue that by then plans had been drawn up to murder the Jews in specially created camps in east-central Europe. Some would say that Hitler had already made up his mind by January 30, 1939, when he delivered a notorious speech to celebrate the sixth anniversary of the Nazi takeover. Nevertheless, he had to find a means of putting his thoughts into action, and even then, German leaders were remarkably sensitive to foreign opinion. It is more likely that the speech, with its prophecies of Jewish suffering, was a warning to the United States that there would be trouble for the Jews if they continued to stifle German trade and rob the country of the foreign currency it so desperately needed to survive.

Words like vernichten (exterminate) and ausrotten (wipe out) came easily to Hitler’s lips. As a frontline soldier in the Great War, he had personally experienced the effects of poison gas, but even by the end of 1938 it was unlikely that he had considered using it on his racial enemies. Wartime conditions vastly accelerated the Nazis’ as yet unformulated projects, and only when the smoke was thick enough to obscure the activities of the zealots in the extermination camps did massive troop deployment, inadequate communications, inurement to violence and death, together with casualties on an unprecedented scale, all help remove the last moral barriers to genocide.

Giles Macdonough, 1938: Hitler's Gabmle (Basic Books, 2009), pp. x-xi


Peter Longerich in his 2019 Hitler biography also denies that this speech was intended to precipitate the Holocaust:

Was Hitler announcing publicly and to the whole world his intention to murder the Jews in a coming war? At this juncture, the word ‘annihilate’ cannot be unequivocally interpreted in this sense. A few days earlier, Hitler had also spoken to the Czech foreign minister about ‘annihilating’ the Jews, but had meant their expulsion, quite apart from the fact that he had also warned Chvalkovský of the ‘annihilation’ of Czechoslovakia. When interpreting this passage, as with many other Hitler statements, one should be aware that Hitler was not simply announcing a decision taken in isolation, but rather that his ‘prophecy’ had several potential layers of meaning. Above all, in the first place, one must take into account the tactical motive of his speech, which should be seen in the context of the international negotiations concerning Jewish emigration.

His annihilation threat was intended, first of all, to increase the pressure on German Jews to emigrate and on foreign countries to receive them. [...] the main target audience of his prophecy was the United States.

Peter Longerich, Hitler: A Life (Oxford University Press, 2019), pp. 604-605


And Wilhelm Stäglich, a German Judge, points out that Hitler, in the same speech actually clarified what he meant, something these "historians" never quote because it gets in the way of their own sophistry:

This is how he continued his speech:

For the non-Jewish peoples are no longer without the weapon of propaganda. Both National Socialist Germany and Fascist Italy have the equipment necessary to enlighten the world about the nature of a problem that many nations instinctively recognize, though they may lack a scientific view of it. For the time being, the Jews may carry on their agitations in certain states under the cover of the press, cinema, radio, theater, literature, etc., which are in their hands. But if the Jewish nation should once again succeed in goading millions of people from other nations into a totally senseless war, to serve only Jewish interests, the efficacy of the kind of enlightenment that within just a few years utterly defeated the Jews in Germany will become manifest.

Thus Hitler’s threat was that, if another world war broke out, Zionism would be politically eliminated – by disclosing to the peoples of the world its role in that catastrophe. He started from the premise – and we may leave aside the question whether rightly or wrongly – that the preservation of world peace depended largely on the stance of international Jewry, which did indeed have an extraordinarily strong influence on nearly all governments.

Wilhelm Stäglich, Auschwitz: A Judge Looks at the Evidence (Castle Hill Publishers, February 2015), p. 105


Hitler as we can see, in the same speech of January 30th 1939, reiterates his "prophecy" using the same wording ("But if the Jewish nation should once again succeed in goading millions of people from other nations into a totally senseless war") but this time employing the recent historical example of Germany, which up until that point had "annihilated" (Vernichtung) the influence of Jews in Germany by a number of means, but never violent. Jews left the country entirely on their own volition, or were otherwise helped to leave via the incentives provided by the Haavara Agreement - prior to this they were simply denied access to certain Jobs or to study certain professions which in itself helped Jews leave Germany.

With this context it is impossible to suggest (as Kershaw does) any "genocidal intent" or "pathology of his mind" potentially influencing Hitler in any way.

David Irving does a good job mangling the propaganda behind such alleged references to the Holocaust laced in Hitler's speeches:

So far the conformist historians [...] [suggest] the project was so secret that only oral orders were issued. Why however should Hitler have become so squeamish in this instance, while he had shown no compunction about signing a blanket order for the liquidation of tens of thousands of fellow Germans (Philipp Bouhler’s T-4 euthanasia programme); his insistence on the execution of hostages on a one hundred to one basis, his orders for the liquidation of enemy prisoners (the Commando Order), of Allied airmen (the Lynch Order), and Russian functionaries (the Commissar Order) are documented all the way from the Führer’s headquarters right down the line to the executioners.

Most of my critics relied on weak and unprofessional evidence. For example, they offered alternative and often specious translations of words in Hitler’s speeches (apparently the Final Solution was too secret for him to sign an order, but simultaneously not so secret that he could not brag about it in public speeches); and quotations from isolated documents that have however long been discarded by serious historians as worthless or fakes, like the Gerstein Report† or the ‘Bunker conversations’ mentioned earlier

David Irving, Hitler's War and the War Path (Millennium Edition, Focal Point Publications, 2002), p. xxviii


He makes a good point. If Hitler were so confident that he was going to win the war, as some Believers have stupidly stated (as you should know TruthSeeker) then why would Hitler not have signed an order? If he were so unconcerned about the remnants of the Holocaust on the battlefield at Babi Yar for example, where German soldiers were apparently allowed to take photographs ( :lol: ) then why would he not sign an order for the killings? And why has nobody ever claimed to have seen this order? The only references to "Führer" orders have been from those like Eichmann or Gerstein, but never did they claim to see this order on paper. It has only ever been speculation based on 2nd or 3rd hand accounts.

None of this makes sense if you want to believe the Holocaust narrative is true.

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Re: Hitler's Reichstag Speech - Troubling Translation

Postby Otium » 2 years 7 months ago (Tue Oct 27, 2020 12:44 am)

Unless holocaust deniers can procure a 1940s dictionary that gives a different meaning to the German word "Vernichtung" when combined with the target "Rasse", I daresay at this point they only can resort to saying:

1) the recording is fake (easy way out, but this recording has been around for ages, before the development of any CGI)
or
2) Hitler was only a hothead making hollow and empty threats, or poetic ("we will not die, for it is they who will...")

both are very moronic attempts at this point to exculpate Hitler promising the holocaust.


It's funny to me that these people would say this. Because their second option is quite literally what the orthodox historians say about this speech (as I've quoted above) more or less.

I guess these same experts relied upon by these Believers posting on Bitchute are making "very moronic attempts to exculpate Hitler". Which of course they're not. It simply makes no sense that Hitler is being literal in that speech. Hitler being taken literally is the only way these people can ensure the speech means what they want it to mean. It's not an argument they've made, because they have failed to refute why, in their example, Hitler couldn't have been "poetic". In fact I think that makes much more sense.

The strategy on their part was to make a ridiculous claim and then to supplement it with someone far less outlandish in order to make Revisionists looks like kooks. People who want to sound give off the impression of being "educated" won't disagree with them because it isn't socially acceptable to do so.

Just pointing out what everyone knows, that Hitler used the words "RASSE" and "VERNICHTUNG" as opposed to the litany of other examples makes no difference at all. There's no reason why Hitler needed to have used any alternative wording in order to say the same thing. I myself could critique these people and say that Hitler was just talking generally, he didn't declare that he had a plan to kill Jews, or that his state would perpetrate this elusive killing operation. Only that it would come to be that the Jews would find themselves in the precarious situation of not existing in Europe. By whatever means that was to occur. And no shit, the "Jews" are a race, and Hitler refers to them as such.

These people would be lying if they thought that words could only be taken literally. Can anyone here seriously say that when going up against an adversary the phrase "we will exterminate them!" or some such iteration of that phrase hasn't been uttered? Of course not. For these people to deny that possibility for no reason exposes their very obvious political motives to distort the historical narrative in such a way as to support their pre-determined judgement about what occurred. They fail to take any stock of the context, future events, documents, decisions, anything relating to these events in WW2.

With nothing but hindsight from a position that favours their historical outlook can these people make the claims about this Hitler speech having the importance they ascribe to it. Only if you take the occurrence of the Holocaust for granted, in support of other evidence before this speech can it be taken, or viewed in any way as contributing to the lore of the Holocaust. By itself, it is worthless, by itself it means nothing and by itself cannot be taken to show that Hitler wanted or did kill any Jews.

If this speech was all we had, void of any supporting evidence, then no such claims could be made. So the question has to move on and we need to ask "well okay then, what evidence proves that Hitler had a plan to exterminate the Jews? And what is the evidence that this in-fact occurred?" The speech then has to take a backseat to the other questions surrounding this problem before the importance of the speech itself can be placed into its proper context. The speech itself cannot mean anything otherwise. So there's really little point in even discussing it.

The fact that these people have to use this speech to try and "prove" the Holocaust before providing any documents, or physical evidence for the crime shows how bankrupt they are when it comes to evidence. The position these people should be taking if this speech were related to any real Holocaust, is that it refers to the Holocaust because it happened for X Y Z reasons, and thus cannot refer to anything else. They shouldn't be relying on this speech as evidence in and of itself. Instead they make the poor argument, because they lack proof - that this speech is related to the Holocaust because Hitler says certain words, and these words lend credence to the narrative and this is why it's referring to the Holocaust. At that point it becomes an argument about interpretation that leaves us little room to move unless we're discussing other aspects of the debate.

The speech means nothing by itself. These people have made a very poor argument relying on nothing but appeals to social convention.


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