Zolton wrote:According to revisionists, Jews died by the thousands, if not tens of thousands
During WWII? Yes, both Jews and non-Jews died in WWII.
If you want to pretend that what revisionists claim happened to the Jews in this situation was not second degree murder, which includes:
"Depraved-heart murder", in which the killer has no specific intent to inflict harm but knowingly commits acts with a high probability of causing death or serious harm, demonstrating a malignant indifference to human life, is typically second-degree murder."
Or third degree murder:
"Whoever, without intent to effect the death of any person, causes the death of another by perpetrating an act eminently dangerous to others and evincing a depraved mind, without regard for human life, is guilty of murder in the third degree."
Then so be it.
I believe that you are quoting US law, which applies to actions performed in the United States. It does not apply to soldiers on another continent, in another century, that are not under US jurisdiction.
If you are accusing individuals of murder and want me to agree with you on this classification, first you must:
- List the name(s) of the accused
- Cite the exact statute that was violated at this time/place
- List the name(s) of the alleged victim associated with the accused
Where did they go?
Not sure. They were not equipped with a tracking device and GPS didn't exist at the time
Do you also claim that those Nazis who, according to revisionists, killed Jews in the "euthanasia program" at Treblinka, were only guilty of "at best involuntary manslaughter"?
That is not the correct way to phrase the term if you are going to use definitions of crimes based on US statutes. You should instead ask:
"Would the actions taken by [specific individual] in [specific part of Europe] on [specific date during WWII] be tantamount to [specific crime] as defined in [US criminal code citation] if that exact action was undertaken by someone in the USA in the year 2023?"
A very silly question indeed.
How well did the defense of "it was lawful" to kill Jews work for the Nazis at Nuremberg?
What a silly question. Would you also say that magic is real because there have been trials against witches?
To determine if the euthanasia program at Treblinka was lawful or not, whether it was murder or not, please explain how the Nazis killed Jews at Treblinka. It is the revisionist claim after all.
That would actually not be relevant. To determine whether it was lawful or murder, you must first cite the legal definition of "murder" that applied in that particular time/place.
It is inappropriate to cite modern US law when we are speaking of events from the 1940s during WWII in Europe.