Did the Nazis Exaggerate Number of Deported Jews?

[fireofice]

One argument in regards to the holocaust is that although the Nazis claimed to be deporting millions of Jews to the East during the war, the likelihood of this happening without a bunch of Jews claiming to have been deported, combined with the fact that it would be hard to keep a bunch of prisoners in the east while a war is going on, is very low. Therefore, the Jews were killed instead of deported.

I do believe there is reason to believe that the Nazis exaggerated the number of Jews deported though. The Nazis wanted to make it look good to higher ups that they were doing a good job deporting a bunch of Jews, which is why it may have been exaggerated. This article also gives some other arguments:

https://en.metapedia.org/wiki/Korherr_Report

Now one may argue that I'm just making stuff up to fit a theory I have. Even if that were true, they still have to "explain away" the deportations as really being about killing. So they are no better in that regard. Although I don't think I'm just making stuff up out of thin air. We do have reason to believe that Einsatzgruppen reports exaggerated the amount of Jews killed.

In The Origins of the Final Solution, Browning cites an example where a German official did over-estimate the number of Jews shot on the Eastern Front by German forces. The over-estimation is contained in the "Hahn summary report" of December 10, 1941. Five Einsatzgruppen reports were summarized by Franz Rademacher's assistant, Fritz Gebhard von Hahn. At this point we let Browning continue with his story: "He [Hahn] extrapolated, however, from the examples of EK 2 and 3 in the Baltic, and wrongly, concluded that each individual Sonderkommado had on average liquidated 70,000 -80,000 Jews. The result was an over- rather than underestimate of the number of Jews murdered, but clearly Hahn had not failed to grasp the significance of the reports concerning the intended fate of Soviet Jewry [p. 402]."

https://codoh.com/library/document/the- ... topher/en/

So if we know this happened in other cases, it is not unreasonable to assume it happens elsewhere.

[Lamprecht]

Yes it is likely, especially in the Korherr report. From "The Gas Chambers Of Sherlock Holmes" (Samuel Crowell):

"Himmler wished to present a short report to the Fuhrer showing how the Government General of Poland was now free of Jews; that is the clear import from a comparison of the short report and the longer one. In the same manner, the number of Polish Jews remaining, about 300,000, corresponds precisely to the benchmark that Himmler indicated in July 1942 that he wanted to achieve by the end of the year. In other words, there was a powerful incentive for the numbers in this report to be cooked."

https://archive.org/details/TheGasChamb ... lockHolmes | http://www.samuelcrowell.com/wp-content ... dotcom.pdf

[Archie]

Certainly possible, even probable. But I think there's hesitance among some revisionists to make this argument. Likely they don't want to be vulnerable to the charge that they are disregarding documentary evidence in order to reach a predetermined conclusion.

The deportations from Western Europe and Czechoslovakia are probably in the right ballpark. Where there are potentially very material differences would be Poland, Hungary, and Romania.

Arthur Butz has long argued that the ~438K said to have deported from Hungary in under two months is not realistic. His main arguments are 1) there would not have been sufficient rail transport for such numbers and arranging this would have been a major ordeal that would have generated lots of discussion, and 2) there is an ICRC report that conflicts with the standard history on a number of points. Others like Graf have accepted the standard deportation figures.

Butz
https://codoh.com/library/document/on-the-1944-deportations-of-hungarian-jews/en/

Graf
https://codoh.com/library/document/what-happened-to-the-jews-who-were-deported-to/en/

[Hektor]

Exaggerate would require some intention to do so. My money would be on double counting deportations. I.e. Jews first being deported to Ghettos, than to a camp and then two the East. One person deported could be counted 3 times.

[borjastick]

Exaggerate would require some intention to do so. My money would be on double counting deportations. I.e. Jews first being deported to Ghettos, than to a camp and then two the East. One person deported could be counted 3 times.

Correct. It was an analogue age. Lists and counting and admin were all manual labour, there must have been potential for huge overlap and mistake. That could of course have happened both ways so they could have under-counted but in my view that would have been unlikely.

One unit is responsible for the despatch of jews from one town, they get recorded and sent onwards. At the part destination or overnight stop are they then counted properly against the original passenger list? I doubt it. Take for example those who we know were sent into and then out of Treblinka 2, were they counted and recorded properly and what became of those lists?

To my mind there is almost no doubt that the miss calculation on possibly a very large scale was inevitable.

[Waldgänger]

https://www.bitchute.com/video/z02WUE3tSpUc/

AltHype's recent video asking where the Jews all went, if not up chimney stacks, is enlightening in this regard. Very analytics/statistics oriented. It may be that neither the Nazis nor anyone else had to exaggerate numbers deported. The conclusion of this 66-minute video is that 1939 census results for Jews, by which we calculate the 6,000,000 dead, were based on 1931 estimates and censuses primarily, and do not take into account a huge amount of emigration by Jews and forced movement of Jews by the USSR in Summer 1941, especially out of Bialystok. It seems the greatest number of Jews Hitler could have had access to, anachronistically, across 1941-1943, was 4.2 million. At a maximum. And from the huge number of survivors endlessly peddling their stories & gossip, many of this 4.2m patently did not die. So, what are we left with?